I have heard a lot of unbelievers say that the bible contradicts itself.
Or could it be that the popular way that it has been taught has been a bit wrong? I mean after all, the bible does say "God is not the author of confusion" so clearly something isn't right. For instance take a look at what Jesus says here....
"But he who endures to the end shall be saved. And this gospel of the kingdom will be preached in all the world as a witness to all the nations, and then the end will come." Matthew 24:13-14
Now let's think about this. Jesus says that he who endures to the end shall be saved. He also says that once the gospel was preached in all the world, the end would come. But the end wouldn't be until the gospel was preached in all the world!....................right?
But did you know that Jesus spoke about this same "enduring until the end" another time also?
He speaks about this in Matthew chapter 10. It was at the time He was telling His disciples about the coming persecutions that they would go through. He sends them off as sheep among wolves to preach the gospel and to heal the sick and cast out demons. They were going out to fulfill the great commission. He says....
"And you will be hated by all for My name’s sake. But he who endures to the end will be saved. When they persecute you in this city, flee to another. For assuredly, I say to you, you will not have gone through the cities of Israel before the Son of Man comes." Matthew 10:22-23
Notice something similar?
In both passages Jesus speaks of "THE END". He speaks about enduring until "THE END".
But yet in one passage He says that "the gospel would be preached in ALL THE WORLD...AND THEN THE END WILL COME."
In the other passage He says to the disciples, YOU WON'T FINISH PREACHING IN ALL THE TOWNS OF ISRAEL BEFORE THE SON OF MAN COMES.
Think about that.....did Jesus contradict Himself there?
In one passage He says the whole world would hear the gospel before the end. In the other He says not even all of Israel would hear the gospel before the end. How is this possible!?
Well, the answer is simple.
The "ALL THE WORLD" used there is NOT meant literally as in the entire planet. It is better translated as "in all the land" or " in the known land." (Greek word- oikoumenē)
It was a very specific geographical location. Hence why the Lord tells them to "flee to the hills of Judea" when they saw the end draw near and the armies surrounding Jerusalem. How are you and I going to flee to the hills of Judea if this is future to us? Should we hop a quick plane ride over there so we can obey His commands to get to the hills of Judea?
Jesus' intention was to make it known that His Coming (aka "THE END" of the Old Covenant Age) would happen relatively soon. In that generation (Matt 24:34) and before some of the men standing there died. (Matt 16:27-28)
The gospel would go out to much of Israel and even further. But it most certainly wouldn't reach all of Israel (Matt 10:23-24) and it most certainly had NOTHING to do with the entire world as we are told today.
There are no contradictions in the bible.
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